question

by Andrea Elizabeth

Kierkegaard can write pretty erotically in Either/Or Part 2 page 52-53 translated by Hong and Hong. It is ironic that he says afterward, “I have deliberately changed the ordinary phrases a bit, for, to be honest, the love described, no matter how passionate it is, with however much pathos it proclaims itself, is still much too reflective, much too familiar with the coquettishness of erotic love for one to dare to call it a first love.” So the first lover would not speak in such a way, only a subsequent lover? Then how can the first person person claim to be a first and only lover?

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